I'm shopping around for auto insurance quotes because I want my own policy as I'm currently under my dad's policy at TD. All the rates I'm getting are very high due to a single vehicle accident in 2014 that's affecting my premiums. It's currently stated that I'm at-fault when all these years I thought it was not. Only now after calling insurance companies to get quotes have I realized the accident is at-fault. Here is what happened, and mirrors what I put on the police report:
I was driving back home on the highway going the speed limit at 110km/h towards Chestermere, AB. My driver-side tire suddenly blew and the separated rubber was rotating around the rim, flipping and damaging the fender, headlight, hood, and front bumper. I swerved a bit, but gained control of my vehicle. I slowed down while pulling onto the shoulder and stopped safely. My vehicle was totalled and was instantly a write-off. No injuries, no further damage, just a single-vehicle accident that didn't cause any other problems.
I called an adjuster from TD Insurance asking why this would be considered at-fault, and the lady said it is because there is no way the tire could have caused all that damage, and that I must've hit something while swerving to cause damage to the front bumper and headlight. This baffles me because I was going 110km/h when my tire popped, and the vicious rotation of the blown tire absolutely caused all that damage to the front-driver side of my 1999 Toyota Corolla. No where in the police report did I mention I hit anything, and the cop signed it off no problem.
I don't understand why the adjuster was arguing with me about this, and pretty much inferring that I hit something. I'm very confused on why they see it this way. Is there something I'm missing about insurance policies? Is there anything I can do to argue that this is not-at-fault, and that it should not be affecting my premiums?